If they are the ones diagnosing the car, don't you think they could be a little dishonest in the process?

Get it to another dealership maybe? Anyone?

 

"As is is a legal term used to disclaim some implied warranties for an item being sold. Certain types of implied warranties must be specifically disclaimed, such as the implied warranty of title. "As is" denotes that the seller is selling, and the buyer is buying an item in whatever condition it presently exists, and that the buyer is accepting the item "with all faults", whether or not immediately apparent. This is the classic "buyer beware" situation, where the careful buyer should take the time to examine the item before accepting it, or obtain expert advice. Oddly, the seller is also saddled with "as is" if the item being sold turns out to be much more valuable than thought.

On the other hand, the phrase "as is" does not disclaim express warranties, such as those created by the seller's description of an item. In other words, the item may be sold "as is," but if the item does not conform to the seller's description, the buyer has a right to reject it.
For example, a seller of a used automobile sells his car to a buyer, and puts into the contract of sale the statement: "The buyer accepts the automobile AS IS, WITH ALL FAULTS." Two minutes after the buyer drives off with it, the engine seizes, and the car stalls. Unless the buyer can show that there was some fraud involved, or the seller breached an express warranty, the buyer is not entitled to a refund.[citation needed] This would be a specific example where fraud in the inducement could outweigh anything in the contract, express or implied: it simply doesn't matter what disclaimer or limitations may be found in the contract, if the contract is void (or voidable) for any reason."

 

I was told the vehicle underwent a 150 point inspection prior to the sale. If i can prove that a pre existing condition blew the motor i can consider that fraud. I need some mechanical advice fellas.. i dont think a f22c can blow due to me owning it for less then 100 miles and 3 days. 1 month or 1 year? Maybe.. 3 days? Obviously had prior issues

 

No, not the only way. Sounds weird, but I know of some cases where the oilcooler was leaky. You know, that tiny thing that cools the oil with coolant.

There is a clear indication if the engine was overreved: the valve retainers are harmed. There is a Honda Service Bulletin where the procedure to detect overreving is described. You can see it on the retainers.

 

Best of luck man, I'm not sure how to proceed in this situation. If honda has a readout of the overrev, I'd most certainly ask them to see the readout #1. #2, if you didn't overrev it, find out if the ECU can actually record the date it was overreved (via a timestamp or something). Maybe it was done prior to your purchase of the vehicle.

#3, You know exactly what happened better than any of us. Consult a lawyer and talk to them and see what can be done. I will say that a motor SEIZING is very strange if you ask me, even for an overrev. I would think the valvetrain would be damaged first, and then perhaps the block (like a rod bolt letting go) if it was overrevved. If the damage to the block is a spun bearing, this STRONGLY implies that the car was abused before you got it, and it merely "let go" on your watch.

Perhaps calling American Honda might not be a bad alternative, but probably a lawyer's advice would be best. Best of luck with your case.

 

So mechanically speaking, there is no way a motor can be seized to over revving the engine correct? Also, if this is the case then the over rev was not the fault but most likely prior problems with the car prior to sale correct? My lawyer says i have a case if we can prove problems on the car existed as none were presented to me during the purchase and i was given a guarantee that the car underwent a 150 pt inspection.

 

I'm not sure I would say "no way," but very slight chances perhaps is more correct. Like I said, it really depends on exactly what the damage is, and the extent of it. If there's no valvetrain damage and it spun a bearing, that strongly implies it was due to abuse or negligence on the previous owner.

However, if you have a rod bolt that came loose (due to an overrev), that could conceiveably "seize" the motor as well.

You said your oil is milky looking correct?

 

thats what i was going to suggest

 

exactly, the rev limiter would engage saving it from over revs, unless the over rev was mechanical but in that case the valve train would be all afloat.

 

Is the dealer selling all his used cars "as is"? If not, why was this car singled out? Could be a reasonable question your lawyer might wish to ask and you wern't given a discription of possible trouble spots.Realistically though, It's probably more due to the high milage and the dealer tags all cars above a certain milage as "as is".