I do believe that the "newer" car will probably be a little "better" in terms of technology. If that technology makes itself known with less drivetrain loss, more power, etc, who knows. It's possible.

Just using different dyno numbers probably isn't the best idea since 1) each car is slightly different and more importantly, 2) each dyno is different. You also can't assume the same parasitic loss percentage for each situation. Just like every car is different, drivetrain friction will be different too.

That's just me though. I had an AP1 and now an AP2 and though I see/feel differences, it's not enough to say one is better/faster then the other. I just like the fact that my AP2 is "newer".

 

Start by correcting your math... Divide dyno HP by ( One minus your claimed % of drivetrain loss ) 1.0 - 0.18 = 0.82

I'll save myself a response post by posting the math right now.

18% of the original (236) is not 18% of the dyno added back in.

18% loss of your "236" number is 42.48. So you get 192.52 not 200.

And Jesus' 230 with 18% loss guesstimate...
230 = EngHP - ( EngHP * 0.18 )
230 = 1.00EngHP - 0.18EngHP
230 = 0.82EngHP
230 / 0.82 = EngHP
280.4878 = EngHP

 

that's assuming there is an 18% drivetrain loss. no way to know for sure as every dyno is different.

 

yea i know... that's why I used words like guesstimate and claimed drivetrain loss.

 

to the OP, you did your math wrong. you calculate the engine hp by doing dynoed power / (1 - 0.18).
therefore, 200 dynoed rwhp = 244 at the crank, and 210 rwhp = 256.1 at the crank.
it's an 18% loss, not an 18% increase
now if the transition from ap1 to ap2 also involved an improvement in efficiency, bringing the 18% to 15%, then the AP2s would be pusshing 247 from the crank, pretty close to the ap1 number. I know the numbers you came up with are guesses, but this is just to give you an idea.
edit: i just saw you corrected your math a couple posts up.

 

although the math wasn't quite right (i didn't check), the fact remains, the OP's point is still valid. significant? not in practice. but valid.

also, it may well be a combination of decreased loss and increased power. we can't really decouple those and then get a large data set; we're stuck with WHP to WHP.

and of course you can't compare a dyno to a dyno as it's a point to point correlation with lots of factors that contribute to error. but once you've seen dozens and dozens, the error starts to diminish and you start to get a better idea of what the trends are. and that's what the OP is commenting on.
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i agree with the OP--i think there is a real WHP increase in AP1 --> AP2. and maybe even every 2 years. that's the OP's point.

and i don't think it's a lot.

 

i dont know, i have an MY06 and my friend has a MY02. bew both dyno the same numbers, well not exactly 195 and 197. smae day same dyno. 3 pulls each.

 

Is the gearing different in third for the two generations? Could that account for the difference?

 

AP2's dyno higher than AP1's mainly for the sole reason that they are newer and there is less wear on the drivetrain. If you take any old car, it will never dyno as high as it did when it was new. This is just what happens as the car ages. It becomes less efficient at putting down all its original horsepower, and it probably doesn't have as much horsepower as it had originally due to wear and tear.